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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 05:48

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

I am married for 3 years. My husband keeps pressing my boobs 40-50 times a day. He never stops though I ask him not to. What I should do to stop it?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why do you think most harem anime and manga have lame male protagonists that would be considered losers and pathetic by most people?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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You'll usually find your answer there.